I recently had this issue come across my desk: A landlord sent a Tenant a bill for two year’s worth of tax expenses does the tenant have to pay them. Unfortunately, the general answer is yes. Despite the landlord being asleep at the switch, if the tenant agreed to pay such expenses in the lease the landlord’s failure to request them promptly generally will not relieve the tenant from its obligation to pay such expenses. Should the landlord take some affirmative act in writing such as “You don’t owe such expenses for 2010” that might lead to a different result.
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